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Hi all,
I want to conduct a meta-analysis with multiple effect sizes in several studies. I have used the three-level approach (see for example: Van den Noortgate, W., López-López, J. A., Marín-Martínez, F., & Sánchez-Meca, J. (2013). Three-level meta-analysis of dependent effect sizes. Behavior research methods, 45(2), 576-594.) In my case, there are three different types of variances: sampling variance, variance between the effect sizes of one study (level 2 variance), and variance between the effect sizes across studies (level 3 variance). Tau2_2 is the level 2 variance and Tau3_2 is the level 3 variance, is this correct? And what is the sampling variance?
Furthermore, I understood that I can compare the three-level model with a two-level model by fixing the level three variance to zero ('RE3.constraints=0'). I was wondering if this is also correct in my case. According to Van den Noortgate, when I would use a two-level meta-analysis I would have only sampling variance and variance between the effect sizes across studies, so no variance between the effect sizes of one study. Therefore, I was thinking that I should fix the second level variance to zero ('RE2.constraints=0') if I want to compare the three-level model with the original two-level method. Is this correct?
My last question: could I also use the standard error in the syntax for the three-level meta-analysis instead of the variance?
Thanks in advance!